British-American author and journalist Christopher Hitchens is no stranger to controversy. Most commonly known for his scathing indictment of religion, Christopher stirred the pot again by revealing the two affairs he had had with male members of Margaret Thatcher’s administration in his latest memoir. When questioned of his motivation during a  New York Times interview Christopher (who identifies as straight) had this to say:

“There are still people who want to criminalize homosexuality one way or another, and I thought it might be useful if more heterosexual men admitted that they are a little bit gay, as is everyone, and that homosexuality is a form of love and not just sex.”

This brings up the touchy subject of men who identify as heterosexual, but do, on occasion, have sex with men. Does engaging in a homosexual act automatically qualify one as “gay?”

And, is Christopher right when he claims everyone's just “a little gay?”
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I can't speak for other people but I do wonder how polyamorous we'd all be without the cultural and religous conditioning. As for me, I'd say I'm about 40% gay.
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I think if we didn't have all these cultural restrictions. We'd go nuts but we wouldn't find anything wrong with it. Nearly everyone would be polyamourous, gay, bi, etc.
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